No, that’s the answer to Ivans question.
Forgot about this thread…
You mean infinity? I guess you’re right about that, but I’m not using it as a number. What my expression says is that you have an index k, which is 1 initially, you have a constant m(which we don’t know what it is) and you have a formula 1/k(m+k). You keep inxreasing the index by 1, substituting it into the formula and summing up the results, so you’ll get 1/(m+1) + 1/2(m+2) + 1/3(m+3) + … . You keep going until the index isn’t equal to the constant at the top of the sum expression(greek sigma). In our case it’s infinity, so the index will never be equal to it and the summing up will go on forever. This is called infinite series. Your job is to find what the sum of this infinite number of expressions will be equal to. It’s not so hard, really.
It looks like Maestro8 forgot about this thread as well. Shame. He wanted the infinite series. Maybe if I asked for some 3-dimensional integrals, he’d reappear?
I know what you have to do but I also know that I’d miss a point in a test if I’d write it the way you did. 
That is definitely the correct way to write it. Maybe you should find a better school.
Check here: Series (mathematics) - Wikipedia
I’m on a technical Gymnasium so it’s the best school depending on that subject. My teacher told us that many teach it the wrong way and she is totally against it because it’s not allowed to use it as a number and you would do in some way if you’d wirte it the way you did.
It would have to be written the way it is in my pic, although I’m sure everybody also understands it if it’s written the way you did, but that’s not correct at least in the opinion of my fantastic math teacher, 
If you’re so good at this, then write the solution already. Stop nitpicking at my notation.
And, that notation is the one that’s used by universities around the world. If your teacher has a grudge against it, that’s her own problem(also yours if you’re gonna take a maths course at university and don’t know standard notation). I’m not gonna comment on the matter any more.
Actually I don’t think I know the solution, cause I’ve no idea what to do with the m (you didn’t write what kind of number it is) and the last time I calculate similar stuff is half a year ago and I don’t remember much except of the writing thing. My teacher told us that we should learn it already at school right so we have it easier at university. But well, she seems to be wrong at that point.
• Bummer! I love to argue. 
I did the convergence test (integral method) and found it to converge, but I’d never worked with such a form before. Was too ashamed to cheat so I didn’t post up right away… sorry.
The physicist in me simply looked at the approximations for small and large values of m and found the answer to be somewhere in the neighborhood between 1 and pi^2/6. I’m happy with an order of magnitude approximation in many cases 
Here’s the cheat, "]using Mathematica to get the exact answer.
Of course I’d love to see some integrals…
no it was 768/1